Monday, November 13, 2023

Minerals and Energy Resources

 Geography Chapter 5 – Minerals and Energy Resources


What is a Mineral?

A mineral is defined as a “homogenous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure.” Minerals are found in varied forms in nature, ranging from the hardest diamond to the softest talc. Rocks are combinations of homogeneous substances called minerals.


Mode of Occurrence of Minerals

Minerals are usually found in “ores”. The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements. Minerals generally occur in the following forms:


In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints.

In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in beds or layers.

The decomposition of surface rocks and the removal of soluble constituents also form the minerals.

Minerals also occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors and the base of hills.

The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals.

Classification of Minerals


Ferrous Minerals

Ferrous minerals account for about three-fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.


Iron Ore


India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore.

1)-Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron, up to 70%. It has excellent magnetic qualities.

2)-Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore. It contains 50 to 60% iron.

The major iron ore belts in India are:


1-Odisha-Jharkhand belt

2-Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt

3-Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt

4-Maharashtra-Goa belt

Manganese


It is mainly used in the manufacturing of steel and ferro-manganese alloy.

Nearly 10 kg of manganese is required to manufacture 1 tonne of steel.

It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides and paints.

Non-Ferrous Minerals

Non-ferrous minerals include copper, bauxite, lead, zinc and gold. These minerals play a vital role in a number of metallurgical, engineering and electrical industries.


Copper


A malleable, ductile and good conductor of heat and electricity.

Mainly used in electrical cables, electronics and chemical industries.

The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, the Khetri mines in Rajasthan and the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Bauxite


Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.

Aluminium is obtained from bauxite. Aluminium has good conductivity and great malleability.

Deposits are mainly found in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.

Non-Metallic Minerals

Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.

Mica is the most indispensable mineral used in the electric and electronic industries.

It has excellent di-electric strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.

Mica deposits are found on the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur plateau.

Rock Minerals

Limestone is found in rocks composed of calcium carbonates or calcium and magnesium carbonates.

It is the basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace.

Conservation of Minerals

Minerals are a non-renewable resource. It takes thousands of years for the formation and concentration of minerals. Continued extraction of ores leads to the depletion of minerals. So, it’s important to take the necessary steps so that mineral resources can be used in a planned and sustainable manner.


Energy Resources

Energy resources can be classified as


Conventional Sources: It includes firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity.

Non-Conventional Sources: It includes solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and atomic energy

Let us discuss each of them in detail.


Conventional Sources of Energy

Coal:


It is the most abundantly available fossil fuel.

It is used for power generation, to supply energy to the industry as well as for domestic needs.

Lignite is a low-grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content.

Coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures is bituminous coal.

Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.

Jharia, Raniganj, and Bokaro are important coalfields.

Petroleum


It provides fuel for heat and lighting, lubricants for machinery and raw materials for a number of manufacturing industries.

Petroleum refineries act as a “nodal industry” for synthetic textile, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries.

Mumbai High, Gujarat and Assam are major petroleum production areas in India.

Natural Gas


Natural gas is an important clean energy resource. It is considered an environment-friendly fuel.

The power and fertilizer industries are the key users of natural gas.

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG ) is used in vehicles to replace liquid fuels.

Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in the Krishna-Godavari basin

Electricity


Electricity is generated mainly in 2 ways:


By running water which drives hydro turbines to generate Hydro Electricity. It is a renewable resource of energy. India has a number of multi-purpose projects like the Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation, the Kopili Hydel Project.

By burning other fuels such as coal, petroleum and natural gas to drive turbines to produce Thermal Power. It uses non-renewable fossil fuels for generating electricity.

Non-Conventional Sources of Energy

Renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy from waste material are called Non-Conventional Energy Sources. Let’s discuss them one by one.


Nuclear or Atomic Energy


Nuclear Energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. Uranium and Thorium are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.


Solar Energy


Solar energy is produced by the Sun’s light. Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into electricity.


Wind Power


Wind Energy or Power is the use of wind to generate electricity. Wind turbines are used for this purpose. The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu from Nagercoil to Madurai.


Biogas


Biogas is a type of biofuel that is naturally produced from the decomposition of organic waste. Biogas is the most efficient use of cattle dung. It improves the quality of manure.


Tidal Energy


Tidal energy is the form of hydropower that converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power, mainly electricity. In India, the Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf of Kachchh in Gujarat on the western coast and the Gangetic Delta in the Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.


Geo-Thermal Energy


When heat and electricity are produced by using the heat from the interior of the earth, it is known as Geo-Thermal Energy. In India, geothermal energy is harnessed from Parvati Valley near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh and from Puga Valley, Ladakh.


Conservation of Energy Resources

Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path for energy development. Here are some ways that each one of us can contribute to saving energy resources:


1-Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles

2-Switching off electricity when not in use

3-Using power-saving devices.

4-Using non-conventional sources of energy

Wednesday, November 8, 2023

7-History L-4-The Mughal Empire

 Class -7th History

Chapter -4 


The Mughal Empire


1. Match the following:

mansab         –       rank

Mongol          –     Uzbeg

Sisodiya Rajput  –   Mewar

Rathor Rajput –     Marwar

Nur Jahan   –     Jahangir

subadar   –     governor


2-Fill in the blanks-


1-The capital of Mirza Hakim, Akbar’s half-bro: her, was …Kabul


2-The five Deccan Sultanate were Berar, Khandesh, Ahmadnagar,...Bijapur, Golconda


3-If zat determined a mansabdar’s rank and salary, sewer indicated his……number of horses maintained.


4-Abul Faze, Akbar’s friend and counsellor, helped him frame the idea of ...    administration ..so that he could govern a society composed of many religions, cultures, and castes.


3-. What were the central provinces under the control of the Mughals?

Answer: Panipat, Lahore, Delhi, Agra, Mathura, Amber, Ajmer, Fatehpur Sikri, Chittor, Ranthambhore and Allahabad.


4. What were the relationships between the mansabdar and the jagir?

Answer:

Relationship between the mansabdar and the jagir:


Mansabdars were those who joined Mughal service.

Jagirs were the salaries of the mansabdars in the form of revenue assignments.

It means mansabdars received jagirs as their salaries. Hence, mansabdars depended upon jagirs for their livelihood.


5-What was the role of the zamindar in Mughal administration?

Answer:  Zamtndars were powerful local chieftains appointed by the Mughal rulers. They exercised great influence and power. They collected taxes from the peasants and gave them to the Mughal emperor. Thus, they played the role of intermediaries. In some areas the zamindars became more powerful. The exploitation by Mughal administrators made them to rebellion. They got support from the peasants in rebelling against the Mughal authority.


6-How were the debates with religious scholars important in the formation of Akbar’s ideas on governance?

Answer:

In the 1570’s at Fatehpur Sikri Akbar started discussions on religion with people of different faiths. There were ulemas, Brahmanas, Jews ,Catholic priests and Zoroastrians.


These discussions took place in Ibadat Khana. These were about social and religious customs.

These interactions made him realise that religious scholars are bigots. They emphasize rituals and dogma.

Their teachings create divisions in society. This led to the idea of Sulh-i-Kul or ‘Universal peace’.


7-Why did the Mughals emphasise their Timurid and not their Mongol descent?

Answer:  The Mughals were descendants of two great lineages of rulers. From their mother’s side they were descendants of Genghis Khan, ruler of the Mongol tribes. From their father’s side they were the successors of Timur, the ruler of Iran, Iraq and modern-day Turkey. However, the Mughals did not like to be called Mongol because Mongol’s especially Genghis Khan’s, memory was associated with the massacre of innumerable people. It was also linked with the Uzbegs, their Mongol competitors. On the other hand, the Mughals were proud of their Timurid ancestry, because it achieved good name in the history.


8. How important was the income from land revenue to the stability of the Mughal Empire?

Answer:

The income from land revenue is very important to the stability of the Mughal Empire as:


It was used for extension of empire, wars, etc.

Income is used to pay salaries/wages to army, bureaucrats, artisans and workers.

The administrative expenditure is dealt by this income.


9-Why was it important for the Mughals to recruit mansabdars from diverse backgrounds and not just Turanis and Iranis?

Answer:  The Mughal Empire expanded to different regions. Hence, it was important for the Mughals to recruit diverse bodies of people in order to make people comfortable with them. Apart from Turanis and Iranis, now there were mansabdars from Indian Muslims, Afghans, Rajputs, Marathas and other groups.


10. Like the Mughal Empire, India today is also made up of many social and cultural units. Does this pose a challenge to national integration?

Answer:

No, this does not pose a challenge to national integration because:


We have a unified system of government that has the same rules and regulations for all the citizens irrespective of religion, region, etc.

We have a constitution guarding the rights of all and specifying their duties.

Now we are unified as a nation, not as distinct states or regions of different rulers.

Wednesday, November 1, 2023

सरदार पटेल ३१/१०/२०२३ राष्ट्रीय एकता

 पूरा नाम- सरदार वल्लभभाई  झावेरभाई पटेल


सरदार पटेल का नारा - "हमें ऊंच नीच, अमीर-गरीब तथा जाति पंथ के भेदभावों को समाप्त कर देना चाहिए।


वल्लभ भाई पटेल जन्म -31/10/1815 नाडियाड गुजरात


मृत्यु=15/12/1950 बौंबे (75 वर्ष की उम्र)


पिता- झावेरभाई पटेल


माता- लाडवा देवी


उपनाम - सरदार, लौह पुरुष


1947- के बद भारतीय स्वतन्त्रता के पहले तीन वर्षों में उप-प्रधान मन्त्री, गृह मंत्री, सूचना मंत्री तथा राज्य मंत्री के रूप में कार्य किया।


2014= उनके जन्मदिवस को राष्ट्रीय एकता दिवस मानने का फैसला 


1913 : भारत आ गए लंदन से वकालत करने


ज्ञातव्य = है कि अंग्रेजो ने भारत को आजादी की घोषणा तब देश 565 ने स्वतन्त्र शासन की देसी रियासतो मे बेटा था जिसे ब्रिटीशस स्वतंत्र शासन की छूट  दे दी थी। इस प्रकार हमारी आजादी  कई छोटी छोटी रियासतों में बंटी थी। पटेल ने गृह मन्त्री के रूप  में इन सभी से भारतीय गणतंत्र में शामिल होने के लिए आग्रह किया और हैदराबाद, भोपाल, जूनागढ़ और कश्मीर को छोड़कर 565 रियासले अपनी इच्छा से भारतीय गणतन्त्र में शामिल होने के लिए तैयार होगा। परन्तु सरदार पटेल के मजबूत इरादे के कारण सभी को अंत में भारत मे शामिल होने के लिए तैयार होना पड़ा बस हैदराबाद को शामिल करने के लिए "आपरेशन पोलो" चलाना पड़ा था ।

देसी राज्यों (रियासतों) का एकीकरण

मुख्य लेख: भारत का राजनीतिक एकीकरण

स्वतंत्रता के समय भारत में 562 देसी रियासतें थीं। इनका क्षेत्रफल भारत का 40 प्रतिशत था। सरदार पटेल ने आजादी के ठीक पूर्व (संक्रमण काल में) ही वीपी मेनन के साथ मिलकर कई देसी राज्यों को भारत में मिलाने के लिये कार्य आरम्भ कर दिया था।[3] पटेल और मेनन ने देसी राजाओं को बहुत समझाया कि उन्हे स्वायत्तता देना सम्भव नहीं होगा। इसके परिणामस्वरूप तीन को छोडकर शेष सभी राजवाडों ने स्वेच्छा से भारत में विलय का प्रस्ताव स्वीकार कर लिया। केवल जम्मू एवं कश्मीर, जूनागढ तथा हैदराबाद स्टेट के राजाओं ने ऐसा करना नहीं स्वीकारा। जूनागढ सौराष्ट्र के पास एक छोटी रियासत थी और चारों ओर से भारतीय भूमि से घिरी थी। वह पाकिस्तान के समीप नहीं थी। वहाँ के नवाब ने 15 अगस्त 1947 को पाकिस्तान में विलय की घोषणा कर दी। राज्य की सर्वाधिक जनता हिंदू थी और भारत विलय चाहती थी। नवाब के विरुद्ध बहुत विरोध हुआ तो भारतीय सेना जूनागढ़ में प्रवेश कर गयी। नवाब भागकर पाकिस्तान चला गया और 9 नवम्बर 1947 को जूनागढ भी भारत में मिल गया। फरवरी 1948 में वहाँ जनमत संग्रह कराया गया, जो भारत में विलय के पक्ष में रहा। हैदराबाद भारत की सबसे बड़ी रियासत थी, जो चारों ओर से भारतीय भूमि से घिरी थी। वहाँ के निजाम ने पाकिस्तान के प्रोत्साहन से स्वतंत्र राज्य का दावा किया और अपनी सेना बढ़ाने लगा। वह ढेर सारे हथियार आयात करता रहा। पटेल चिंतित हो उठे। अन्ततः भारतीय सेना 13 सितंबर 1948 को हैदराबाद में प्रवेश कर गयी। तीन दिनों के बाद निजाम ने आत्मसमर्पण कर दिया और नवंबर 1948 में भारत में विलय का प्रस्ताव स्वीकार कर लिया। नेहरू ने काश्मीर को यह कहकर अपने पास रख लिया कि यह समस्या एक अन्तरराष्ट्रीय समस्या है। कश्मीर समस्या को संयुक्त राष्ट्रसंघ में ले गये ।    

5 अगस्त 2019 को प्रधानमंत्री मोदी और गृहमंत्री अमित शाह के प्रयासों से कश्मीर को विशेष राज्य का दर्जा देने वाला अनुच्छेद 370 और 35(अ) समाप्त हुआ। कश्मीर भारत का अभिन्न अंग बन गया और सरदार पटेल का भारत को अखण्ड बनाने का स्वप्न साकार हुआ। 31 अक्टूबर 2019 को जम्मू-कश्मीर तथा लद्दाख के रूप में दो केन्द्र शासित प्रेदश अस्तित्व में आये। अब जम्मू-कश्मीर केन्द्र के अधीन रहेगा और भारत के सभी कानून वहाँ लागू होंगे। पटेल जी को कृतज्ञ राष्ट्र की यह सच्ची श्रद्धांजलि है।


Saturday, August 27, 2022

X-MCQ Revision Ist term L-1 H,C,G,&E

 HISTORY-L-1-The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

1.What type of conservative regimes were set up in 1815 in Europe?

(a) Autocratic   (b) Democratic  (c) Aristocratic  (d) Dictatorial  Answer: (a) Autocratic

2.Identify the French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world from the following:

(a) Kitagewa Utamaro  (b) Richard M Hoe  (c) Voltaire  (d) Frederic Sorrieu

Answer: (d) Frederic Sorrieu

3.Napoleon invaded Italy in

(a) 1821 (b) 1790s (c) 1905 (d) 1797  Answer: (b) 1790s

4.Who was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861?

(a) Victor Emmanuel II  (b) Louis Philippe (c) Mazzini (d) Cavour

Answer: (a) Victor Emmanuel II

 5.Which of the following artists painted the image of Germania?

(a) Philip Veit (b) Frederic Sorrieu (c) Ernst Renan (d) Richar M Hoe

Answer: (a) Philip Veit

6.Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?

(a) Garibaldi (b) Bismarck (c) Mazzini (d) Duke Metternich

Answer: (d) Duke Metternich

 7.What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the following answers is correct?

(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.

(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.

(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.

(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Answer: (d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.

8.Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?

(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) – Kaiser William I.

(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).

(c) Johann Gottfried Herder – German philosopher.

(d) Austrian Chancellor – Duke Metternich.

Answer: (b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).

9.Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and France, ended in

(a) Danish victory  (b) Prussian victory (c) French victory (d) German victory

Answer: (b) Prussian victor

10.Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?

(a) Otto Von Bismarck (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Count Cavour (d) Kaiser William I of Prussia

Answer: (d) Kaiser William I of Prussia

 11.Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic Code?

(a) Equality before the law (b) Universal Adult Franchise (c) Right to Property (d) Privileges based on birth

Answer: (d) Privileges based on birth

Explanation:The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property.

12.Who hosted the ‘Treaty of Vienna’?

(a) Frédéric Sorrieu (b) Victor Emmanuel (c) Duke Metternich (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Answer: (c) Duke Metternich

Explanation:In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.

13.The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were:

(a) it ended the absolute monarchy.

(b) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens.

(c) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

(d) All the above.

Answer: (d) All the above.

Explanation:France, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

14.What does ‘Absolutist’ mean?

(a) A Philosophy (b) A Theory (c) Monarchical Government (d) A Painting

Answer: (c) Monarchical Government

Explanation:Absolutist is a government or system of rule that has no control on the power exercised. In history, the term refers to a form of monarchical government that was centralised, militarised and repressive.

 15.The first clear expression of nationalism came with:

(a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution (c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution

Answer: (b) The French Revolution

Explanation:The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes during French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.

16.What does a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales symbolise ?

(a) Peace (b) Equality (c) Justice (d) Liberty

Answer: (c) Justice

Explanation:The attributes of Liberty are the red cap, or the broken chain, while Justice is generally a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.

17.What was the main intention behind ‘Treaty of Vienna of 1815’?

(a) Restore republics (b) Restore democracies (c) Restore monarchies (d) None of these

Answer: (c) Restore monarchies

Explanation:The main intention behind ‘Treaty of Vienna of 1815’ was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

18.Who was proclaimed German Emperor after its unification?

(a) The Prussian King – William-I  (b) The French King – Louis Philippe

(c) Victor Emmanuel II                   (d) None of these

Answer: (a) The Prussian King – William-I

Explanation:Three wars over seven years – with Austria, Denmark and France – ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

19.What did Germania symbolize?

(a) French nation   (b) German nation (c) British nation (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) German nation

Explanation:Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

20.Who was Giuseppe Mazzini?

(a) French Revolutionary (b) Italian Revolutionary (c) Russian Revolutionary (d) None of above

Answer: (b) Italian Revolutionary Explanation: Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary. Born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. He founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne.

21.Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.

(a) Elle (b) Zollverein (c) Zweibiicken (d) La Patrie    Answer: (b) Zollverein

Explanation:In 1834, a customs union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states. The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.

22.What did ‘Das Volk’ stand for?

(a) Democracy (b) Factory workers (c) Slum dwellers (d) Common people

Answer: (d) Common people

Explanation:German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised.

 23.Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?

(a) Concept of government by consent  (b) Freedom of markets

(c) Cultural movements  (d) Freedom of an individual

Answer: (c) Cultural movements

Explanation:Romanticism, a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focused instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings

24.Who were the Junkers?

(a) Soldiers (b) Large landowners (c) Aristocracy (d) Nobility

Answer: (b) Large landowners

Explanation:The liberal initiative to nation-building of Germany was repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military, supported by the large landowners (called Junkers) of Prussia.

 25.Which one of the following areas was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?

(a) The Balkans (b) Great Britain (c) Italy (d) Germany  Answer: (a) The Balkans

Explanation:The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.

26. Who made the famous remark ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?

a) Metternich b) Mazzini c) Garibaldi d) Louis Philippe    Answer:  (a) – Metternich

27. The Treaty of Constantinople was signed in ___

a) 1835 b) 1735 c) 1834 d) 1832    Answer: (d) – 1832

28 The famous Italian Revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in ___ in 1807.

a) Turin   b) Rome  c) Genoa d) Atlanta     Answer:  (C) – Genoa

29 Giuseppe Mazzini founded the secret underground society named ‘Young Europe’ in ____

a) Marseilles  b) Berne  c) Vienna d) Brussels   Answer:  (b) – Berne

30. ___ believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society should be preserved.

a) Conservatives  b) Liberals c) Democrats d) None of the above  Answer:  (a) – Conservatives

31 The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power after signing the Treaty of ___

a) Vienna b) Constantinople c) Marseilles  d) Prussia  Answer:  (a) – Vienna

32. ___ regimes imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers,

books, plays and songs and reflected the ideas of liberty and freedom.

a) Liberal  b) Conservative c) Democratic  d) Secular Answer:  (b) – Conservative

33. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the ___ empire, which witnessed the most serious source of nationalist tensions in Europe after 1871.

a) Greek b) Russian c) Prussian d) Ottoman     Answer:  (d) – Ottoman

34. Artists of the time of the French Revolution personified ___ as a female figure.

a) Socialism b) Liberty c) Autocracy d) None of the above   Answer:(b) – Liberty

35. During the nineteenth century, ____ emerged as a force that brought about sweeping changes in the political and mental world of Europe.

a) Nationalism b) Secularism c) Monarchy d) Religion Answer:  (a) – Nationalism

36. The ideas of la patrie means ___.

a) Motherland b) Fatherland c) Citizens d) Monarchy  Answer:  (b) – Fatherland

37. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the ___.

a) Provincial Assembly b) State Assembly c) National Assembly d) None of the above

Answer: (c) – National Assembly

38. Which of the following statements about the Civil Code of 1804, usually known as the Napoleonic Code, are true?

a) Secured the Right to Property   b) Established Equality before Law

c) Removed all privileges based on birth d) All of the above   Answer: (d) – All of the above

39. Which of the following resulted in hostility towards the French armies in Europe

a) Forced conscription into the French armies   b) Censorship

c) Uniform Laws  d) Both Options (a) & (b)  Answer:  (d) – Both Options (a) & (b)

40. The Habsburg Empire consisted of regions

a) Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia

b) The Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland

c) All the above  d) None of the above   Answer:  (c) – All the above

41. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke ___ language.

a) German b) Italian c) French d) Polish   Answer:  (d) – Polish

42. The first political experiment in liberal democracy took place in ____.

a) Germany b) France c) Italy d) Great Britain  Answer:(b) – France

43. Which of the following are true about Liberalism?

a) Abolition of state-imposed restrictions.

b) Freedom of markets on the movement of goods and capital.

c) Both options (a) and (b) are true.  d) None of the above are true.

Answer: (c) – Both options (a) and (b) are true

44. Which of the following is true about elle?

a) It was known as the measurement of cloth.

b) An elle of textile material in different regions will give different measurements of cloth.

c) Such difference in measurement was viewed as an obstacle for economic exchange.

d) All the above statements are true.  Answer: (d) – All the above statements are true.

45. A secret society named Young Italy was established in

a) Marseilles  b) Berne  c) Zurich d) Genoa  Answer:  (a) – Marseilles

Resources and Development Geography Chapter 1 MCQ

1) On the basis of origin, resources can be classified as __ and ___.

a) Biotic and Abiotic  b) Renewable and Non-renewable 

c) Potential and Developed  d) None of the above  Answer: (a)

2) On the basis of the status of development, resources can be classified as __.

a) Potential  b) Developed Stock c) Reserves  d) All of the above     Answer: (d)

3) Which of the following statements are true?

a) Abiotic resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life, such as human beings, flora and fauna.

b) Biotic resources are all those things which are composed of non-living things like rocks and metals.

c) Both the above statements are false.

d) Both the options (a) and (b) are true.        Answer:  (c)

4) Minerals and fossil fuels are examples of non-renewable resources which take ___ for their formation.

a) Hundreds of years    b) Thousands of years  c) Millions of years   d) Just a year  Answer: (c)

5) All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up to ____ from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation.

a) 20 nautical miles  b) 25 nautical miles  c) 15 nautical miles  d) 12 nautical miles  Answer:(d)

6) The oceanic resources beyond ______ of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean, and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.

a) 200 nautical miles  b) 12 nautical miles c) 22.5 nautical miles  d) 100 nautical miles

Answer:  (a)

7) __ are the resources which are surveyed, and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation.

a) Developed resources  b) Reserves c) Stock d) Abiotic  Answer:  (a)

8) ___ are the subset of the __, which can be put into use with the help of existing technical ‘know-how’, but their use has not been started.

a) Reserves, Developed Resources b) Stocks, Reserves c) Developed Resources, Stock

d) Reserves, Stock    Answer:  (d)

9) In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in ____ in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.

a) Rio de Janeiro  b) São Paulo  c) Brasilia  d) Curitiba   Answer:  (a)

10) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted ___ for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.

a) Agenda 20  b) Agenda 21  c) Agenda 19 d) Agenda 22 Answer:  (b)

11) Which of the following statements about Agenda 21 is true?

a) It aims at achieving global sustainable development.

b) It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty and disease through global cooperation.

c) One of the major objectives of Agenda 21 is that every local government should not draw its own local Agenda 21.

d) Option (a) and (b).          Answer: (d)

12) The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and ___ deposits.

a) Coal  b) Gold c) Silicon  d) None of the above  Answer:  (a)

13) The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and ___ energy but lacks in water resources.

a) Geothermal  b) Hydro  c) Wind  d) Tidal  Answer:  (c)

14) ____ was the famous Indian freedom fighter who made an important observation about resource conservation – “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”.

a) Mahatma Gandhi  b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Subash Chandra Bose  d) Dr B.R.Ambedkar

Answer:  (a)

15) The Brundtland Commission Report published in ____, shared ideas about sustainable development and how it could be achieved.

a) 1997  b) 1987 c) 1992  d) 1977  Answer:  (b)

16) About ___ of India’s land area is plain, which provides facilities for agriculture and industry.

a) 43%  b) 53%  c) 34% d) 45%  Answer:  (a)

17) ____ account for 30% of the total surface area of India.

a) Deserts  b) Mountains  c) Plains d) Plateaus Answer:  (b)

18) Land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is known as ____.

a) Gross cropped area  b) Culturable waste land

c) Current fallow          d) Grazing land           Answer:  (c)

19) Land which is left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years is known as ____.

a) Culturable waste land  b) Barren land  c) Pastures   d) Fallow Lands  Answer: (a)

20) The pattern of the net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent of the total area in ___.

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Assam c) Rajasthan d) Punjab Answer: (d)

21.Which of the following methods does not help in soil conservation?

(a) Contour ploughing (b) Strip cropping (c) Creating shelter belts

(d) Ploughing up and down the slopes                      Answer: (d) Ploughing up and down the slopes

22.Which one of the following is a renewable resource?

(a) Coal  (b) Petroleum (c) Solar energy (d) Fossil fuels    Answer: (c) Solar energy

23.The alluvial soil consists of

(a) sand (b) silt (c) clay (d) all of the above                                Answer: (d) all of the above

24.One of the following which does not check land degradation-

(a) control on overgrazing (b) creating shelter belts (c) deforestation (d) afforestation

Answer: (c) deforestation

25.Burial ground is a

(a) community owned resource (b) national resource (c) individual resource (d) international resource

Answer: (a) community owned resource

26.Laterite soil is very useful for growing:

(a) Rice, wheat and mustard           (b) Tea, coffee and cashewnut

(c) Pulses, sugarcane and resin         (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Tea, coffee and cashewnut

27.Black soil is deficient in

(a) Calcium carbonate  (b) Magnesium (c) Potash (d) Phosphoric contents

Answer: (d) Phosphoric contents

28.Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity?

(a) Alluvial  (b) Red soil (c) Black soil (d) Mountain soil               Answer: (c) Black soil

29.Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is called:

(a) Strip cropping  (b) Sheet erosion (c) Contour ploughing (d) Terrace cultivation

Answer: (c) Contour ploughing

30.Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?

(a) Strip cropping  (b) Terrace cultivation (c) Shelter belts (d) Overdrawing of ground water

Answer: (d) Overdrawing of ground water

31.Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised are called

(a) developed resources  (b) stock (c) international resources (d) potential resources

Answer: (d) potential resources

32.Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?

(a) Extensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Overgrazing (d) Over-irrigation

Answer: (d) Over-irrigation

33.Soil formed by intense leaching is:

(a) alluvial soil (b) red soil (c) laterite soil (d) desert soil                          Answer: (c) laterite soil

34.Which cold desert is relatively isolated from the rest of country?

(a) Leh  (b) Kargil (c) Ladakh (d) Dras                             Answer: (c) Ladakh

35.Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?

(a) Intensive Cultivation  (b) Overgrazing (c) Deforestation (d) Over-irrigation

Answer: (d) Over-irrigation

36.What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?

(a) 43%  (b) 23%  (c) 33%  (d) 27%                                Answer: (a) 43%

37.Which one of the following states mostly has laterite soil?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Meghalaya                             Answer: (d) Meghalaya

38.There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed,’’ who among the following has given the above statement?

(a) Vinoba Bhave  (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru  (d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi

39.Which one of the following is a Biotic Resource?

(a) Land  (b) Water  (c) Human beings  (d) Rocks    Answer: (c) Human beings

40.Which one of the following is not the community owned resource?

(a) Grazing grounds (b) Burial grounds (c) Village ponds (d) Privately owned house

Answer: (d) Privately owned house

41.In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation?

(a) Jharkhand and Orissa       (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(c) Punjab and Haryana         (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

42.How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?

(a) Biotic and Abiotic                              (b) Renewable and Non-renewable

(c) Individual and Community              (d) Potential and Reserves

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic

43.Which one of the following soil is ideal for growing cotton?

(a) Regur Soil   (b) Laterite Soil  (c) Desert Soil   (d) Mountainous Soil

Answer: (a) Regur Soil

44.Which among the following is a type of resources classified on the basis of exhaustibility?

(a) Biotic and abiotic                       (b) Renewable and non-renewable

(c) National and individual             (d) Potential and reserves

Answer: (b) Renewable and non-renewable

45.What is arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?

(a) Soil Composition  (b) Soil Erosion (c) Soil Profile (d) Soil Texture            Answer: (c) Soil Profile

Eco- L-1 Development

1) For development, people look at a mix of __.

a) goals  b) responsibilities c) accountability d) none of the above           Answer:  (a)

2) For comparing the development of countries, their ___ is considered to be one of the most important attributes.

a) income b) population c) demographics d) none of the above              Answer:  (a)

3) For comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. State whether true or false.

a) true  b) false                Answer: Option (a)

4) Since countries have different ___, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.

a) economic policies b) reserves c) resources  d) populations             Answer:  (d)

5) In World Development Reports, brought out by the_____, per capita income criterion is used in classifying countries.

a) UNICEF   b) World Bank  c) World Economic Forum. d) United Nations                  Answer:(b)

6) Countries with per capita income of US$ 12616 per annum and above in 2012, are called __.

a) underdeveloped countries          b) developing countries

c) poor countries                              d) rich countries                            Answer: (d)

7) India comes in the category of ____ countries because its per capita income in 2012 was just US$ 1530 per annum.

a) low middle income  b) middle income  c) high middle income  d) none of the above

Answer:  (a)

8) Among the following states ____ has the highest per capita income as per 2012-13 figures.

a) Maharashtra  b) Bihar  c) Kerala  d) Jharkhand                   Answer:  (a)

9) Infant Mortality Rate (or IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of ____ as a proportion of 100 live children born in that particular year.

a) four years  b) one year c) two years d) three years  Answer:  (b)

10) Literacy Rate measures the proportion of the literate population in the ___ age group.

a) 10 and above  b) 21 and above c) 7 and above d) 18 and above                       Answer: (c)

11) Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of the age group ____ attending school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.

a) 17 and 18 years     b) 9 and 10 years

c) 12 and 13 years        d) 14 and 15 years                       Answer:  (d)

12) As per 2011, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?

a) Kerala      b) Maharashtra  c) Bihar   d) Odisha                    Answer:  (a)

13) As per 2011, which among the following states has the highest infant mortality rate per 1000 live births?

a) Kerala b) Bihar c) Maharashtra d) All of the above have the same infant mortality rate

Answer: (b)

14) From the given table in the chapter, which state has the highest net attendance ratio?

a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra  c) Kerala d) Bihar  Answer: (c)

15) Which of the following statements about money are true?

a) Money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment.

b) Money cannot ensure that you get unadulterated medicines.

c) Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases.

d) All of the above statements are true                           Answer: (d)

16) If the Body Mass Index (BMI) is ___ then the adult person would be considered undernourished.

a) less than 18.5  b) less than 10.5 c) less than 25.5 d) less than 28.5                   Answer: (a)

17) If the Body Mass Index (BMI) is ___ then the adult person would be considered overweight.

a) more than 18  b) more than 30 c) more than 45 d) more than 25   Answer:(d)

18) Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on ___.

a) health status  b) per capita income c) educational levels of the people d) all of the above

Answer:  (d)

19) As per 2013 report ____ had the HDI rank of 135 in the world.

a) Sri Lanka  b) Pakistan c) India  d) Bangladesh     Answer:  (c)

20) Among the following South Asian countries, __ had the highest life expectancy at birth.

a) Myanmar  b) Sri Lanka c) Nepal d) India                      Answer:  (b)

20. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?

A. Profit loss B. Income C. Sales D. Import-export ANS-B

21. What are the developmental goals of landless rural labourers?

A. More days of work and better wages    B. Acquirement of land for self tilling

C. More hours of work                       D. Self-reliance  ANS-A

22.What brings about stable income?

A. Better wages B. Work opportunities C. Regular work

D. decent price for their crops or other products ANS -C

23. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it?

A. Getting fewer wages for more work   B. Discrimination C. No work D. Poverty ANS-B

24. What is the one factor on which our life depends?

A. employment B. Security of work C. Money, or material things that one can buy with it D. Freedom

ANS-C

25. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?

A. Their dignity in the household and society decreases

B. No difference  C. No dignity  D. their dignity in the household and society increases ANS-D

26. Different persons could have ……….notions of a country’s development.

A. different as well as conflicting B. Same C. Indifferent D. No ANS-A

Q27. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development?

A. Industrial development          B. Resources of the country   C. Income   D. Import-export

ANS-C

28. More income means …………..

A. Average out of needs of people   B. more of all things that human beings need.

C. No effect on the common man  D. More business ANS-B

29. …………….. is the total income of the country divided by its total population?

A. per capita income B. Gross income C. Net income D. Total income ANS-A

30. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in classifying countries?

A. Total income B. Gross income C. per capita income D. Net income ANS-C

31. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India?

A. Bangladesh B. Sri Lanka C. Nepal D. Pakistan  ANS-B

32. Countries with per capita income of US$ ………… per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries?

A. 12,126  B. 11246  C. 12056  D. 10056   ANS- C

33. Countries with per capita income of US$ __ or less are called low-income countries.

A. 995   B. 885  C. 955  D. 855    ANS-A

34. Which category does India come under?

A. High-income countries     B. Low middle-income countries

C. Low-income countries      D. High middle-income countries ANS-B

35. What was India’s per capita income in 2017?

A. US$ 1950 per annum                  B. US$ 1880 per annum

C. US$ 1930 per annum                   D. US$ 1820 per annum.   ANS- D

36. What can money not buy you?

A. Unadulterated medicines B. Water C. Pollution-free environment D. Organic food ANS- C

37. Why does Kerala have a low Infant Mortality Rate?

A. adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities

B. Suitable climate  C. Pollution Free environment  D. Good water ANS-A

38. Over the past decade or so, ……………indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development?

A. Health and nutrition  B. health and education

C. Child development     D. Human development ANS-A

39. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme which two countries have a higher Life expectancy at Birth rate than India?

A. Srilanka and Myanmar           B. Pakistan and Nepal

C. Pakistan and Bangladesh           D. Nepal and Bangladesh ANS-D

40. Per Capita Income is calculated in ………. for all countries?

A. Pounds B. Euros C. Dollars  D. Rupees ANS-C

41. About ……….. districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years?

A. 300     B. 500  C. 450   D. 350 ANS-A

42. Nearly ………..of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves?

A. Two-third B. One-third C. Half  D. One fourth ANS-A

43. Where is groundwater overuse particularly found?

A. Assam  B. Shillong C. Punjab D. Karnataka ANS-C

44. Groundwater is an example of …………..resources?

A. Renewable B. Non-renewable C. Protected D. Reserve ANS-A

45. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that…………

A. Health and nutrition is declining            B. per capita income is unstable

C. Levels of resources are not sustainable   D. levels of development are not sustainable.

ANS-D

46. How can we find out if we are properly nourished?

A. Through good weight and scale   B. Body Mass Index

C. Nutrient table                                 D. Height and weight table ANS-B

47. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in Uttar Pradesh is………

A. 73%  B. 70%  C. 76%  D. 78% ANS-C

48. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala, and Uttar Pradesh which state has the highest literacy rate?

A. Haryana  B. Kerala C. UP D. All are equal ANS-B

49. In the data for the Per capita income of Haryana, Kerala, Bihar-which state has the lowest per capita income?

A. Haryana  B. Kerala C. Bihar D. All equal ANS-C

C-L-1-POWER SHARING

1) In Belgium, out of the total population, 59 percent live in the Flemish region and speak ___ language.

a) Dutch b) French c) English d) German              Answer: Option (a)

2) In Belgium, there were tensions between the Dutch-speaking and __-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.

a) German  b) French c) English d) Russian  Answer: Option (b)

3) In the island nation of Sri Lanka, the Sri Lankan Tamil population is concentrated in the ___ and ___ of the country.

a) South and West  b) South and East  c) North and Central  d) North and East  Answer: Option (d)

4) Most of the Sinhala speaking people of Sri Lanka are __.

a) Christians  b) Hindus c) Buddhists d) Muslims           Answer: Option (c)

5) Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in ___.

a) 1948  b) 1947  c) 1949  d) 1958  Answer: Option (a)

6) In ____, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

a) 1958  b) 1956 c) 1968  d) None of the above    Answer: Option (b)

7) The amended Constitution of Belgium prescribed that the number of __ and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.

a) Italian b) German c) English d) Dutch       Answer: option (d)

8) ___ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.

a) District Government        b) State Government

c) Community Government      d) Central Government            Answer: Option (c)

9) When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, __ was chosen as its headquarters.

a) Brussels  b) Paris  c) London  d) Zurich                    Answer: Option (a)

10) Which of the following statements about Power Sharing is false?

a) Power sharing helps in reducing the conflicts between social groups.

b) Power sharing is a good way to help in establishing political order.

c) Power sharing is not the spirit of democracy.

d) All the above are false.                                     Answer: Option (c)

11) Which of the following statements are true about power sharing?

a) Power is shared among different organs of government.

b) Power can be shared among governments at different levels.

c) Power may also be shared among different social groups.

d) All the above statements are true.               Answer: Option (d)

12) ____ means a social division based on shared culture.

a) Ethnic b) Democracy c) Secularism d) None of the above    Answer: Option (a)

13) ___ is a belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.

a) Majoritarianism          b) Minoritarianism   c) Secularism    d) None of the above  Answer: Option (a)

14) ____ in Belgium is a good example of power sharing among different social groups.

a) Community Government              b) District Government

c) Central Government                      d) State Government                         Answer: Option (a)

15) The major social groups in Sri Lanka are the Sinhala-speakers which constitute ___ of the population.

a) 35 percent  b) 50 percent c) 74 percent d) 30 percent  Answer: Option (c)

16) In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak __ while 20 percent are ___ speaking.

a) French, Dutch    b) Dutch, French  c) French, German  d) German, French            Answer:  (a)

17) Out of the total population of Belgium, ___ of people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.

a) 40 percent  b) 50 percent c) 20 percent d) 10 percent    Answer: Option (a)

18) Belgium has borders with France, the Netherlands, ____ and Luxembourg.

a) Sweden b) Austria c) Italy d) Germany  Answer: Option (d)

19) ___ is a violent conflict between opposing groups within a country that becomes so intense that it appears like a war.

a) Civil War b) Proxy War c) Colonial War d) None of the above                        Answer: Option (a)

20) Which of the following statements are true?

a) A legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system.

b) Prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes; moral reasons emphasise the very act of power sharing as valuable.

c) A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise and who have to live with its effects.

d) All the above statements are true.

Answer: Option (d)

 

Tuesday, August 24, 2021

X-MCQ-G-Agriculture

 Social Science MCQs Chapter 4 Agriculture

1. Which of the following is not correct about plantation farming?

(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.

(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.

(c) Plantations cover large tracts of land called estates.

(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them, to produce cereals and other food crops.


Answer

Answer: d


2. Which of the following are plantation crops?

(a) Rice and maize

(b) Wheat and pulses

(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: c


3. The three major cropping seasons of India are:

(a) Aus, Aman and Boro

(b) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid

(c) Baisakh, Paus and Chait

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: b


4. Rabi crops are:

(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer

(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter

(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: a


5. Kharif crops are grown:

(a) with the onset of monsoon and harvested in September-October

(b) with the onset of winter and harvested in summer

(c) with onset of Autumn and harvested in summer

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: a


6. The main food crop of Kharif season is:

(a) Mustard

(b) Pulses

(c) Rice

(d) Wheat


Answer

Answer: c


7. The main food crop of Rabi season is:

(a) Wheat

(b) Rice

(c) Maize

(d) Jowar


Answer

Answer: a


8. A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known as:

(a) Aus

(b) Boro

(c) Zaid

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: c


9. Important non-food crops of our country are:

(a) Tea and coffee

(b) Millets and pulses

(c) Cotton and jute

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: c


10. Which is the main food crop of the eastern and southern part of the country?

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(c) Maize

(d) Sugarcane


Answer

Answer: a


11. The two main wheat growing regions are:

(a) The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan Trap

(b) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains

(c) Deccan plateau and Konkan coast

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: a


12. Wheat requires annual rainfall between:

(a) 50 and 75 cm

(b) about 200 cm

(c) 200 and 300 cm

(d) less than 20 cm


Answer

Answer: a


13. The third most important food crop of our country is:

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(c) Jowar

(d) Ragi


Answer

Answer: c


14. Which State is the largest producer of bajra?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Gujarat

(d) Haryana


Answer

Answer: a


15. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize?

(a) Temperature between 21 °C to 27°C and old alluvial soil

(b) Temperature below 17°C and shallow black soil

(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: a


16. Which of the following crops is a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet?

(a) Wheat

(b) Rice

(c) Pulses

(d) Oilseeds


Answer

Answer: c


17. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?

(a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif season

(b) Pulses are leguminous crops

(c) They are grown in rotation with other crops

(d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities


Answer

Answer: d


18. Which is the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane?

(a) Temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm

(b) Temperature below 17°C and 50 to 75 cm rainfall

(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall

(d) none of the above


Answer

Answer: a


19. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

(a) 21

(b) 12

(c) 2

(d) 4


Answer

Answer: b


20. Which of the following conditions can spoil tea crop?

(a) Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year

(b) Frost free climate

(c) Deep fertile well drained soil

(d) Clayey soil which has high water holding capacity


Answer

Answer: d


21. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:

(a) Himalayas

(b) Aravalli Hills

(c) Garo Hills

(d) Baba Budan Hills


Answer

Answer: d


22. Which of the following crops is an important raw material for automobile industry?

(a) Pulses

(b) Ragi

(c) Rubber

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: c


23. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:

(a) Sericulture

(b) Aquaculture

(c) Apeculture

(d) Pisciculture


Answer

Answer: a


24. Which of the following is known as golden fibre?

(a) Cotton

(b) Jute

(c) Hemp

(d) Silk


Answer

Answer: b


25. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area? (Textbook)

(a) Shifting agriculture

(b) Plantation agriculture

(c) Horticulture

(d) Intensive agriculture


Answer

Answer: b


26. Which one of the following is a rabi crop? (Textbook)

(a) Rice

(b) Millets

(c) Gram

(d) Cotton


Answer

Answer: b


27. Which one of the following is a leguminous j crop? (Textbook)

(a) Pulses

(b) Jawar

(c) Millets

(d) Sesamum


Answer

Answer: a


28. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop? (Textbook)

(a) Maximum support price

(b) Minimum support price

(c) Moderate support price

(d) Influential support price


Answer

Answer: b


29. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as:

(a) Mixed farming

(b) Cooperative farming

(c) Slash and bum agriculture

(d) Commercial farming


Answer

Answer: c


30. Plantation agriculture is a type of:

(a) Subsistence farming

(b) Commercial farming

(c) Mixed farming

(d) None of the above


Answer

Answer: b

Tuesday, July 27, 2021

MCQ-L-1-C- Power sharing

 Chapter 1 - Power Sharing.   At the end of Multiple Choice Questions, the answer key has also been provided for your reference

 

Q1. Belgium Shares borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and ……?

    A. England
    B. Norway
    C. Luxembourg
    D. Italy

 

Q2.  In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak………?

    A.  French
    B. Dutch
    C. German
    D. English

 

Q3. 20 % of the people of Brussels Speak………?

    A. Dutch
    B. English
    C. German
    D. Italian

 

Q4.  Brussels presented a special problem:What was it?

    A. Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in the country, but a majority in the capital
    B. Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital
    C. Other foriehn languages were seeping in
    D. English was becoming dominant

 

Q5. What percentage of Srilankan Population is Tamil Speaking?

    A. 50%
    B. 20%
    C. 18%
    D. 16%

 

Q6.  The people whose forefathers came from India to Srilanka  as plantation workers during the colonial period are called…….

    A. Sri Lankan Tamils
    B. Indian Tamils
    C. Tamil Indians
    D. Indian Sri Lankans

 

Q7.  Most of the Sinhalese Speaking people in Srilanka are…………?

    A. Hindus
    B. Christians
    C. Muslims
    D. Buddhists

 

Q8. When did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent country?

    A. 1949
    B. 1950
    C. 1948
    D. 1951

 

Q9.  In ……….an Act was passed to recognise Sinhalese as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhalese applicants for university positions and government jobs?

    A. 1956
    B. 1957
    C. 1958
    D. 1959

 

Q10. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the ………...among the Sri Lankan Tamils?

    A. Protests
    B. Favouritism
    C. Feeling of alienation
    D. Subordination

 

Q11.  By the 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding ……..?

    A. Certain rights
    B. Independent Tamil Eelam (state)
    C. Sovereign State
    D. Priority in Jobs for Tamils

 

Q12. When did the Civil War of Sri Lanka end?

    A. 2010
    B. 2009
    C. 2005
    D. 2011

 

Q13. How many times was the constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?

    A. Three times
    B. Two times
    C. Four times
    D. Once

 

Q14. The Constitution of Belgium  prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers ……….. in the central government?

    A. Shall be equal
    B. Dutch speaking shall be more
    C. French speaking will be more
    D. None of the above

 

Q15. The ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French and German-speaking. What powers does it hold?

    A.  Cultural, educational and language-related issues.
    B. Political issues
    C. Defence related issues
    D. All of the above

 

Q16. Give reason as to why power sharing can be good for a country?

    A. it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
    B. is a good way to ensure the stability of political order
    C. It does not lead to confusion in managing the state
    D. A & B

 

Q17. Give one moral reason as why power sharing is good?

    A. it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
    B. It does not lead to confusion in managing the state
    C. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
    D. power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order

 

Q18. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to …….?

    A. Democracy
    B. Dictatorship
    C. Monarchy
    D. Undivided political power under one sect

 

Q19. Give an example of horizontal distribution of power?

    A. governments at the provincial or regional level.
    B. legislature, executive and judiciary
    C. among different social groups
    D. political parties, pressure groups and movements

 

Q20. Which is a federal division of power?

    A. governments at the provincial or regional level.
    B. legislature, executive and judiciary
    C. among different social groups
    D. political parties, pressure groups and movements

 

Q21. Where  power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary, what is the functioning of this system called?

    A. Horizontal system
    B. system of checks and balances
    C. System of shared duties
    D. System of limited power

 

Q22. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka.
1. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French-speaking community.
2. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority.
3. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
4. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines
Which of the statements is correct?

    A. All of the above
    B. 1, 2 and 4
    C. 3 and 4
    D. 2, 3 and 4

 

Q23.  In Sri lanka, there are about…..  percent Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala?

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 7
    D. 12

 

Q24. In Srilanka the democratically elected government adopted a series of ……….. measures to establish Sinhala supremacy?

    A. Extreme
    B. Democratic
    C. Political
    D. Majoritarian

 

Q25.  In Srilanka, a new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster ………...Tamil Indians

    A. Hindu
    B. Buddhist
    C. Christain
    D. Islam

 

Q26. In Belgium……

    A. The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government
    B. The state governments are subordinate to the Central Government
    C. The state governments have no say before the central govt
    D. The state govt can contradict the Central government

 

Q27. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, ………. was chosen as the headquarter?

    A. Paris
    B. Brussels
    C. Rome
    D. London

 

Q28. Name one prudential reason for power sharing?

    A. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
    B.  People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
    C. Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system
    D. Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups

 

Q29. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power sharing. Identify those which are in favour of power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below? Power sharing:
1. reduces conflict among different communities
2. decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
3. delays decision making process
4. accommodates diversities
5. increases instability and divisiveness
6. promotes people’s participation in government
7. undermines the unity of a country

    A. 1, 2, 4, 6
    B. 1, 3, 5, 6
    C. 1, 2, 4, 7
    D. 2, 3, 4, 7

 

Q30. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Power sharing is good for democracy.
2. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of these statements are true and false?

    A. 1 is true but 2 is false
    B. Both 1 and 2 are true
    C. Both 1 and 2 are false
    D. 1 is false but 2 is true

 

Answer key-“Power Sharing” MCQs

 

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

Q. No.

Ans.

1

C

11

B

21

B

2

A

12

B

22

B

3

A

13

C

23

C

4

B

14

A

24

D

5

C

15

A

25

C

6

B

16

D

26

A

7

D

17

C

27

B

8

C

18

D

28

D

9

B

19

B

29

C

10

C

20

A

30

B